I know it's been awhile, but, here goes...Adelphos:
Actually, one cannot prove it was congregational (that is, everyone speaking in tongues at once). The context was specifically about individual prayer in tongues (which I demonstrated already in my post about prayer in tongues), not about corporate worship in tongues (which you have not proven the text is dealing with at all, but have merely DECLARED it so - which is not sound exegesis, btw).
The p***age in question is 1 Cor. 14:28, and it states "...in the church" and you don't think the context is clearly congregational?
TD