I figured something was wrong due to 2 Corinthians 6:2, KJV, and now I think I know why after some more research. First, the Septuagint that contained the Apocrypha was for Non-Hebrew speaking Jews outside of Judea and it's environs only with the Hebrew speaking Jews in Palestine using the Hebrew Bible that didn't contain the Apocrypha. Second, the early Christians were all Jews prior to Cornelius and headquartered in Jerusalem so, they would've primarily used the Hebrew Bible. Third, the fact that the Hebrew Bible didn't include the Apocrypha suggests reservations about such among the Jews and early Christians. Fourth, the above would reconcile things with 2 Cor. 6:2, KJV, and explain why Prayers for the Dead didn't enter Christendom until the 3rd century A.D. and indicates only a slow acceptance of the Apocrypha in the Septuagint within Christendom. Fifth, this would mean that the early Christians of New Testament times didn't practice Prayers for the Dead (i.e., the Post-Apostolic and Ante-Nicene Fathers advocating such didn't occur until 150 AD or later after the New Testament was written). The dilemma I was in is now reconciled. I consider this thread valuable if for no other reason than the additional things that I learned about the Apocrypha. I consider this thread over now.