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The context is about:

1. Christ's own resurrection.
2. The statement is qualified: Those who are "in Adam" which means everyone dies. Those who are "in Christ", the BELIEVERS are "made alive".
3. Therefore, The verse refers to the resurrection of BELIEVERS..those that are Christ's at His coming.

Why would God refer to those who come first if there is not those who come after. If you keep reading, it says that Christ puts all things under his feet and turns over everything to God. You misunderstand if you think that Christ is not in charge of everything on the earth, of the earth, and in the earth. While you are right that Paul discusses those who follow Christ, he also is speaking to everything that Christ's saves...which is everything God creates. After everything has been restored, the great day of judgement comes where those who are wicked will be exposed and they will be tormented both by what they did or did not do and by their inability to choose freedom and eternal life.
Christ does NOT SAVE everything God the Father created. You do NOT know the Bible, you do NOT understand it, but your corrupted Mormon understanding of it. Jesus said that He did NOT PRAY FOR THE WORLD, but only for those whom the Father had given Him.


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The p***age is not teaching resurrection is a form of "salvation". That's your kooky Mormon interpretation at work here.

Nope, you are missing that the grave shall give up all their even the wicked. Do you think this would be possible without Christ?
Yes, it's completely possible without Christ because God can resurrect whomever He chooses to do so. You're missing the point as usual:

The wicked are a part of the "Second Resurrection" and are thrown into the lake of fire. The "Second " is NOT some kind of salvation, ie.


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Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and by sin; and so p***ed upon all men, for that all have sinned:


Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.


Rom 5:14 Nevertheless reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.


Rom 5:15 But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be , much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.


Rom 5:16 And not as [it was] by one that sinned, [so is] the gift: for the judgment [was] by one to condemnation, but the free gift [is] of many offences unto justification.


Rom 5:17 For if by one man's offence reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)


Rom 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one [judgment came] upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one [the free gift came] upon all men unto justification of life.


Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.


Rom 5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:


Rom 5:21 That as sin hath reigned unto , even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

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The p***age isn't teaching that ALL men (and women) will be justified, but is teaching that as the first Adam brought and destruction, the "second" Adam, i.e. Christ brings the free justification on those whom Christ will make righteous. The key is the next verse right after your "proof-text".


So, if I read that verse as you read it, many were made sinners and many were made righteous...can you please explain to me which of us who have been born are not sinners? If I apply the word many both ways?
It has to do with Paul's contrasting Adam with Jesus and Greek usage. You've ignored the earlier verses in which is clearly states that SOME have been given the "gift by grace", which means others have NOT been given this.


A really easy way to answer this is if you believe that all will overcome --will all be saved from physical ? Do you believe this is something that would happen without Christ or is this something that required Christ's atonement to bring about? You can ask yourself "Did Christ save everyone from physical ?"
You keep ignoring the Bible's dire warning of those who are of the "Second Death". Christ's atonement is NOT efficacious for ****ed people's resurrection. THEY GO TO HELL, AND THEN THE LAKE OF FIRE. You've gotta READ the whole of the Bible, dear.

As I stated before, once you read the scriptures in this context and that all received this grace, to overcome phyical , then Paul becomes an easy read. Those who believe in Christ understand that their life is not their own. Those who do not believe in Christ do not understand this even though their lives have also been paid for with a price. Paul, is of course, speaking to the believers when he writes to the different areas. Therefore, his address to them would be specific to understanding both their salvation in the physical sense and their salvation in the spiritual sense.
There is NO salvation in the physical sense FOR THE ****ED. THEY GO TO THE LAKE OF FIRE. Deal with THAT.

This understanding would stop the divisions that occur within Christianity whether one can fall from grace.
This has nothing to do with bizarre Mormon "interpretations" of the Bible.