Again--is it true faith before or after the works?Originally Posted by dberrie2000 View Post---That might not fit the scriptures in all ways:
John 5:28-29----King James Version (KJV)
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of ****ation.
Could you explain why Christ testified to the fact all will be judged according to their deeds--and that for life or ****ation?
Matthew 16:27---King James Version (KJV)
27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
That begs the question--is true faith necessary for salvation? Or, are we first saved by false, dead faith--and it becomes true faith following being saved?
James 2:26---King James Version (KJV)
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.
Except for the fact there is but one mention of "faith alone" in any translation you would use:
James 2:24---New American Standard Bible (NASB)
24 You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.
Do you believe that is dead faith it refers to?
James 2:26---King James Version (KJV)
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.
James 2:26---King James Version (KJV)
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.
I stated in any translation you would use--not could use. Ma'am--you don't use the JST.And I believe you are wrong about the mention of "faith alone" in any translation we could use. Doesn't Joseph Smith, in his translation, say that we are saved by grace through faith alone, in Eph. 2:8? I will need to check. No, it is Romans 3:8--here it is:
The JST was a differentiation between the Mosaic Law and the Gospel of grace--not a theology, as the faith alone has made it. Again--this is what is stated about the theology:
James 2:24---New American Standard Bible (NASB)
24 You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.
I do. What is it about the fact "faith alone" is not found in any translation you would use do you not believe?But I see nothing confusing in the grace through faith alone salvation.
James 2:24---New American Standard Bible (NASB)
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24 You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.
The Biblical record is clear--Jesus alone in the Atonement--and God gives His salvational grace to those who obey Him:Jesus did all that is necessary to save us; we can do nothing to help save ourselves.
Hebrews 5:9---King James Version (KJV)
9 And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
God's part is finished--do you believe Peter told the truth?If we could, then Jesus would not have cried triumphantly from the cross, "It is finished!" If there still remained stuff we have to to help save ourselves, He would have shouted instead, "To be continued!"
Acts2:38--KJV
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Christ?
Mark 16:16---King James Version (KJV)
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be ****ed.
That we are saved by grace--and not faith nor works--and that grace p***es through faith--is that dead faith Paul referred to?By the way, was Paul wrong in what he wrote in Eph. 2:8? He said we are saved by grace through faith and not by works, so no one can boast. Therefore, what is there left to be saved by?
James 2:26---King James Version (KJV)
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.
God gives His salvational grace to them that obey Him:
Acts 5:32---King James Version (KJV)
32 And we are his witnesses of these things; and so is also the Holy Ghost, whom God hath given to them that obey him.