Once again: No, I don't think he was speaking to gentiles at the time. I think it was written for the Jews and it was their book to read. So, while you don't think it matters, I do. You answer your own question---if they are gentiles, why does God call them "gods" and "children of the Most High"---since you are the one who believes that they were gentiles---this really becomes a question for you to answer.