Quote Originally Posted by tdidymas View Post
Pentecostal/Charismatic leaders teach quite frequently that everyone who receives the Holy Spirit speaks in tongues, but Paul's teaching is contrary to this, 1 Cor 12:30, saying that not everyone speaks it.
1. Is it possible that contextually Paul is addressing tongues as a gift?

2. Is it possible that speaking in tongues can be used as evidence of receiving the Gift of the Holy Spirit AND also be a separate gift?