No, you are defining what you think "the law" is---suffice it to say that it is clear that there was a law from Adam to Moses as can be clearly seen in the reading of the Old Testament.Romans 5:13 For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
When was there NO law IN the world?
You believe that they were under the law of the gospel from Adam to Moses, which would include baptism, laying on of hand for the gift of the Holy Ghost, Melchizedek priesthood and all the other ordinances. Where do you find all of these things pre Moses?
Or were you thinking that it was okay that Cain killed Abel as there was "no law" according to you?