Christian-Muslim Relations. CCC 841;LG 16; NA3

[Leslie]

Originally Posted by Columcille

Based on what I read about it in wikipedia, there are certainly interesting comparisons. It is definitely a preChristian religion, which seems to have some influence in its cl***ic antiquity with Cyrus II releasing the Jews from captivity. Its following is certainly not a major religion and it is a complicated religion in various respects, so much of anything I say on it would be out of ignorance. For instance, I do not know if Zoroaster ever made a claim to descend from Abraham or to the Abrahamic faith in one God. It seems that in some respects Ahura Mazda is one God, but I cannot say for any certainty how this God is viewed in terms of an impersonal or personal God and its make up in relation to Jewish and Islamic theology of One God.

Besides, I think Zoroastrianism is off topic since it is not discussed in the Catechism, the LG, nor the NA quotes I have given.

But to answer your question, I would have to be consistent in the N.T. presentation of Romans 1 and 2; namely that nobody is without excuse knowing sin from cause-effect relations incurring the wrath of God and seeing God's nature through his creation and that they practice the things of the law unto themselves to be considered righteous by God. This is the main crux of the Catholic teaching here. You must refute Romans 1 and 2 to make me believe that salvation is not possible for those who do not know Christ and his Gospel... I say that Christ extends his salvation to these ignorant yet righteous group of individuals regardless of their ignorance so that both Romans 1 and 2 fulfills John's message that there is no salvation apart from Christ.

So according to the Catholic Church, a person could worship a pagan god, like the muslims, and still go to heaven?


Also, what about this?

Extra Ecclesiam nulla salus