Quote Originally Posted by Columcille View Post
Once could say that John Milton in writing "Paradise Lost" was "inspired."
We talk a lot about divine inspiration in regards to Scripture.

I have tried to discuss both the inspiration in regards to the transcribing of each book to its reception by the people of God. Can one exist without the other? Could God inspire a work divinely and it still be rejected by the people of God?
Columcille,

At first blush, yes. In the parable of the Vinyard owner and his workers killing every messenger upto and including His Son. At second blush however we the beneficiaries of hindsight know who the son was in that parable. He said that those who held the keys to the Kingdom were the Devil's children and those leaders rejected Him so were they really God's people even though they were the keepers of the inspired texts? I guess that they accepted them but misunderstood them? Hmmm.

So the sister question is can God's people accept non-inspired text but mistake it for inspired?

MacG

Did that go anywhere? It's late and I'm tired,