The Gift of Tongues

[tdidymas]

Originally Posted by Adelphos

Hello Jean,

I do not belong to any Oneness group, but I would like to answer these points.

*I spoke in tongues after conversion (Acts 19).

*I could write an entire page in answer to this, let me not overwhelm those reading (in other words, if we had our own place to debate this thoroughly, I would write it completely). 1 Cor. 12:30 is dealing with the Gift of Speaking in Tongues, not with all kinds of speaking in tongues. The verse asks the question, "Do all speak in tongues?" The answer is no. However, it is addressing one kind of tongue. For example, if I were to ask "Do all have faith?" within the same chapter context, the answer would still be no. Why? Because there is a vast difference between saving faith and the gift of faith.

*I teach that all believers who receive the Gift of the Holy Spirit will speak in tongues (Acts 2, 8, 10, 19, and others)

*Christians who do not receive the Gift of the Holy Spirit with tongues are still Christians.

One question for you:

When does one receive the Gift of the Holy Spirit according to the preponderance of Scriptural evidence? At conversion, at water baptism, or post conversion? Show Scriptures please

Respectfully,

Adelphos

Adelphos, according to 2 statements you make about all who receive the gift speak in tongues, and about those who don't are still Christians, are you suggesting that there are Christians who will go to heaven who do not have the gift?

Are you suggesting that the "Gift of the Holy Spirit" is something different than the gift a believer who is given, the Holy Spirit as a guarantee of inheritance in the Kingdom (Eph. 1:13-14)?

OK, so let me ***ume that you are not suggesting that a believer can go to heaven without the Holy Spirit!! (let me know if I am wrong here) (Rom. 8:9).

***uming we are on the same page here, then, in answer to your question "When does one receive the Gift of the Holy Spirit according to the preponderance of Scriptural evidence? At conversion, at water baptism, or post conversion?" My answer here is, it is not so cut-and-dry. There were times in the transitional period between the end of the old covenant and the start of the new covenant (overlapping period) when believers were believers prior to receiving the Spirit (as in Acts 2 and 8:15). However, later in the epistles, the apostles clearly teach that the Holy Spirit indwells all believers. Rom. 8:9, 1 Cor. 12:13, Eph. 1:13; 2:18, 1 Jn. 2:20; 4:4,13.

Obviously, these few verses might not be proof if they are taken out of context. You have to read them not only in their immediate context, but also in the context of the whole NT.

There is a sense in which the NT teaches that all believers have the indwelling Spirit (Rom 8:15), but not necessarily filled to the fullness thereof (Eph. 5:18). The power of the Spirit given (as clearly miraculous events) in Acts was for the purpose of empowerment of the early church for evangelism, as well as authenticate the gospel as being from God. We experience (and observe) only a small taste of its likeness in today's church - when we are filled with the Spirit, we experience an anointing for ministry (such anointing is not a feeling one gets, but rather a supernatural power which causes other people to receive the Word). This is why the apostles exhort all Christians to be filled with the Spirit.

So then, if you follow the logic of the scriptural teaching, then all believers have the indwelling Holy Spirit at conversion, and then later are empowered by infilling for service.
TD